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I need answers with A+ for these questions:
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) A human resources department may provide all of the following functions EXCEPT:
a. providing legal advice to employees.
b. payroll processing.
c. placing recruitment advertisements.
d. delivering training programs.
e. employee benefits administration.
2) Work design and work force planning is one out of the three primary HR activities mentioned in the text. What else from the list below is considered to be a primary HR activity?
a. Managing employee competencies
b. Recruitment and selection
c. Negotiating labor agreements
d. Benefits and compensation
e. Health and safety
3) EFG Transport expanded its customer service area to include three additional states. After hiring 75 employees to help support operations in this area, EFG learned of an additional competitor which entered the market shortly after they did. Due to this, the demand for their services was not at the level which was expected or budgeted. EFG may consider using all of the following to deal with their labor force issue EXCEPT:
a. leave positions vacant when someone resigns.
b. hire temporary employees.
c. lay off employees.
d. offer early retirement options.
e. transfer employees to another region.
4) How well an employee performs their job is determined by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. attitude with which the employee approaches the work.
b. market demand for the company’s product.
c. nature of the work environment.
d. knowledge, skills and abilities of the employee.
e. access to the appropriate supplies and equipment to perform the job.
5) To achieve Internal alignment, a company needs which of the following?
a. a common understanding of the goals of a company
b. the motivation to do a good job and the tools to perform the job.
c. the tools to perform the job and the competency to complete the tasks.
d. resources to encourage motivation
e. All of the above.
6) John performs his work as a retail clerk in a satisfactory manner. He has good attendance and arrives on time, he completes special tasks as assigned, and he assists customers as necessary with few customer complaints. He has attended all of the required training for the job but has not made an effort to do any additional training or learn new tasks to make himself more promotable. John is satisfied with being average. As his manager, you would describe John as someone who:
a. has low motivation and low competence.
b. has a poor attitude but seems to excel at his job.
c. is highly competent and motivated but needs to be disciplined.
d. is competent but lacks the motivation to be a top performer.
e. is highly motivated but lacks competency.
7) Volvo is an automobile manufacturer which is focused on safety in order to give it a competitive advantage over rival car companies. This strategy is a part of meeting:
a. organizational culture.
b. environmental influence.
c. company characteristic.
d. regulatory issue.
e. organizational demand.
8) Quality, safety and design might all be parts of a strategy for which of the following organizations?
a. Real estate agency
b. Health care facility
c. Tire manufacturer
d. Fast food restaurant
e. Mail order catalog company
9) Dara has just returned from her first department manager meeting in which the CEO shared with the management staff how important it is to dress professionally. He explained that business casual attire was not acceptable and that everyone must “dress to impress.” Dara has just been exposed to:
a. company characteristic.
b. strategy.
c. organizational culture.
d. labor force trend.
e. sexual harassment.
10) Allowing employees to work from home can pose all of the following challenges EXCEPT:
a. attracting qualified candidates.
b. tracking and measuring employee productivity.
c. presenting performance evaluations.
d. monitoring employees’ work hours.
e. providing ongoing training and development.
11) If an organization were looking for ways to become more socially responsible and encourage their employees to be so as well, they may want to consider all of the following EXCEPT:
a. match contributions employees make to their alma mater for scholarship funds.
b. allow employees time off to volunteer for projects such as Habitat for Humanity as long as employees make up the missed work hours.
c. offer payroll deduction so that employees can donate money directly to a charity, such as United Way.
d. allow employees to take the day off with pay (without using their vacation time) to assist with disaster relief in a neighboring state.
e. provide special containers throughout the building for paper, cans and plastic to encourage recycling.
12) Knowing which HR practice to use requires first understanding which of the following?
a. Using the wrong practice, or the right practice poorly, can cause more harm than good.
b. No two companies are the same.
c. There is one best way to manage employees.
d. All of the above.
e. Both a and b are correct.
13) When following a cost leadership strategy, a manufacturing organization would most likely have which of the following?
a. Compensation programs that pay employees a set dollar amount for each item they produce
b. Training programs that focus on basic employee skills
c. Short and simple job descriptions
d. High employee turnover due to limited growth opportunities and repetitive nature of the work
e. All of the above.
14) Organizational culture is most likely developed and sustained by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. where the company headquarters is located.
b. how new hires are oriented to the organization.
c. the decisions made by management.
d. the history of the organization.
e. the founder of the organization.
15) The organization you work for has a policy that employees are promoted from within before external candidates are considered for job openings. This type of policy most directly impacts the:
a. organizational strategy.
b. labor force trends.
c. organizational culture.
d. psychological contract.
e. job design.
16) Mike received an adjustment to his wages today because his supervisor explained that he would be taking on some additional responsibilities since he has demonstrated great effort and commitment to his work. What has just occurred could be labeled as:
a. interactional justice.
b. social responsibility.
c. workforce planning.
d. procedural justice.
e. distributive justice.
17) When designing an employee bonus program, all departments must be considered to ensure that everyone is being treated fairly and consistently. This meets which criteria of procedural justice?
a. Ethicality
b. Bias suppression
c. Accuracy
d. Representativeness
e. Correctability
18) Telecommuting can have all of the following impacts EXCEPT:
a. allow the employer to recruit from a larger pool of applicants.
b. enhances communication between the telecommuter and their supervisor.
c. strains personal relationships in the workplace.
d. help employees manage their work and personal lives better.
e. decrease employee loyalty to the organization.
19) An alliance of independent countries established to create a single market by defining common commercial policy and reducing economic differences is known as:
a. offshoring.
b. the European Union.
c. the Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation.
d. a domestic strategy.
e. the North American Free Trade Agreement.
20) If an overseas country’s unemployment rate drops, what may a U.S. company consider doing?
a. Raising its wages to attract workers to their organization and away from their competitors
b. Making no change to wage and benefits offered due to the poor economy
c. Pulling out of the overseas country and finding a location with a higher unemployment rate.
d. Adding additional positions to its overseas operation to stimulate the economy.
e. Both a and c are correct.
21) All of the following could be said about ethical behavior towards employer stakeholders EXCEPT:
a. altering financial documents to increase shareholder wealth helps maintain shareholder loyalty.
b. it is important to be socially responsible in regard to how a company treats the environment.
c. using unfair labor practices will impact a company’s ability to attract and retain quality staff.
d. giving a percentage of the proceeds from the sale of a limited time product to a local charity shows a company values more than just profits.
e. providing training about how to communicate with different cultures helps foster positive customer relationships.
22) A regulatory agency which oversees compliance with antidiscrimination laws relative to executive orders:
a. the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP).
b. the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).
c. state legislature.
d. Homeland Security.
e. Both A and C are correct.
23) A plaintiff must prove all of the following in order to establish that disparate treatment has occurred EXCEPT:
a. that they are a member of a protected class.
b. that someone else was selected or the company continued to search for applicants with the plaintiff’s same qualifications.
c. that they applied for the employment opportunity and were qualified.
d. that the employer made discriminatory remarks during the employment process.
e. that the employer rejected them.
24) In order to prove that disparate impact has occurred, the selection rate for the protected class must be less thanof the group with the highest selection rate.
a. 80%
b. 20%
c. 51%
d. 75%
e. 33%
25) A clothing company that designs petite styles is searching for models who are less than 5’4”. If all of the black applicants happen to be over 5’4” tall they could be excluded from consideration based on:
a. business necessity.
b. hostile work environment.
c. mixed motive.
d. bona fide seniority system.
e. job related.
26) An Asian employee that tells an ethnic related joke every day which offends his coworkers is:
a. causing disparate treatment in the work place.
b. creating a hostile work environment.
c. using quid pro quo harassment.
d. not violating any rules as long as his work is getting completed.
e. guilty of reverse discrimination.
27) Mark, the Service Manager, witnesses another employee, John, attempting to kiss another employee, Susan
28) , in the break room. Mark can tell from Susan’s body language that John’s advances are unwelcome. Both Susan and John report to the Sales Manager, Linda. As the witness to this incident, Mark should:
a. instruct Mary to talk to John and clear the air and tell her not to bother Linda with it since this was the first time it happened.
b. report the incident immediately to Linda.
c. wait for a few days to see if Susan reports it to anyone and if she does not, confront her.
d. question John about the incident and if he gives a valid reason for what happened, not worry with pursuing it any further.
e. tell another coworker what you saw in order to get advice about how to proceed.
29) Which of the following is an example of retaliation?
a. Selecting the women applicant over the male applicant because she is more attractive.
b. Denying your employee their annual merit increase because you learned that they participated in a harassment investigation against one of your fellow managers who is a close friend.
c. Promoting an employee who does not meet the job qualifications.
d. Providing a negative job reference on a former employee.
e. None of these are considered retaliation.
30) Rosa, a 39-year-old Hispanic woman, has been a housekeeper at ABC Hotel for 14 years. She speaks limited English but does excellent work and is one of their best employees. A coworker translates for Rosa as needed since her job requires very limited, if any, interaction with hotel guests. ABC Hotel has put a new policy in effect that all employees must be fluent in English in order to maintain their jobs. Rosa could file an EEOC claim based on a violation of:
a. Title VII under the national origin and English fluency requirement .
b. Title VII under national origin and accent discrimination.
c. Title VII under gender discrimination.
d. Title VII under national origin and English-only rule.
e. the Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
31) When filing any discrimination charge:
a. the EEOC requires the employer to settle.
b. the EEOC requires the employee and employer to use a mediator.
c. the employee has 300 days from the date of the alleged incident to file with the EEOC.
d. the employee must contact the employer once they have talked to the EEOC.
e. the EEOC encourages the use of alternative dispute resolution.
32) Which of the following is an example of reverse discrimination?
a. A 43-year-old black man is hired over a 21-year-old less qualified white man.
b. A less qualified black man is hired over a highly qualified white man.
c. A white female supervisor dates her Hispanic employee and then terminates him after they break up.
d. A white woman and white man are equally qualified and the woman is selected.
e. A female employee sexually harasses another female employee.
33) The competencies for a job identify things such as the level of education and the number of years of experience required to hold the job are also known as:
a. a competitive advantage.
b. job specifications.
c. a job description.
d. job identification.
e. essential duties.
34) Which of the following statements is most accurate in regard to teams?
a. In order to have quick resolutions to issues, a project team is best made up of just those who will be using the final product or process that results from the team’s work.
b. The use of teams is applicable in any situation and is always effective at improving employee morale.
c. Teams function best when they report to and have oversight by a management member who is not a formal part of the team.
d. When designing jobs with a team environment in mind, employee communication and relationships are enhanced.
e. By definition, employees on parallel teams have similar education and years of experience on the job in order to keep the membership of teams consistent.
35) A task inventory approach:
a. focuses on work dimensions that involve data, people, and things.
b. describes the training and education necessary to perform the job.
c. creates examples of successful and unsuccessful job performance.
d. compares jobs which are very dissimilar by finding those things which may apply to all of the jobs.
e. could involve those currently holding the job to keep a diary and report on the tasks necessary to perform the job.
36) If an organization is pursuing a cost leadership strategy, jobs are designed to maximize efficiencies and therefore the scope of the job is:
a. focused on providing autonomy and empowerment.
b. more narrow than if the company had pursued a differentiation strategy.
c. not impacted by pursuing a cost leadership strategy.
d. less narrow than if the company had pursued a differentiation strategy.
e. Both a and d are correct.
37) You recently started your own landscaping business and employ three other workers. Due to the stage of development and the size of your company, which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. The breadth of competencies required of employees may be greater than in a large company.
b. Employees are asked to cross train in all areas due to the need to multi-task.
c. Job design is very open and flexible.
d. There are most likely fewer rules about how business is carried out than in a large company.
e. All of the above are correct.
38) Offering a variety of flexible work arrangements does all of the following EXCEPT:
a. has a negative impact on women, who are most likely to request special arrangements.
b. can have a positive outcome related to shareholder returns.
c. attract employees who need special work arrangements due to personal or family needs.
c. provide employees with work/life balance.
d. retain employees who may have otherwise had to leave the company.
e. None of the above.
39) Labor force trends which are important to consider when designing a job are:
a. technology and globalization.
b. employee concerns and flexible work arrangements.
c. telecommuting and flextime.
d. competencies available in the work force and the aging work force.
e. work/life balance and offering appropriate flexible work arrangements.
40) Rather than employees retiring completely, some organizations offer a “phased out” retirement whereby employees take a part time or “as needed” position to help fill “hard to fill” vacancies while still being able to be a contributing member of the work force. This is an example of how important it is to consider when designing jobs.
a. technology
b. compressed work weeks
c. telecommuting
d. labor force trends
e. the aging work force
41) In regard to job design, a company must consider such things as whether the country they are operating in has a collectivism or individualist culture, for example, and must also consider:
a. the supply of workers available in the country that have the required job specifications.
b. the education level of the local work force.
c. whether they should offer flexible work arrangements.
d. only A and B are correct.
e. None of the above.
42) A local manufacturing firm has had a turnover rate between 84% and 90% for the past five years. All of the following statements are correct about this organization EXCEPT:
a. there are very few long term employees working for this organization.
b. productivity has been an issue due to work having to be reorganized each time someone leaves.
c. a lot of time is spent orienting and training new employees.
d. retained employees are less likely to be promoted from within the company.
e. human resources and managers spent a lot of time conducting job interviews.
43) One physical therapist can see, on average, 8 patients per 8 hour day. If a physical therapy office employs 6 full-time physical therapists, how many patients (outputs) should they be able to see in 20 workdays?
a. 1280
b. 120
c. 960
d. 48
e. 1000
44) A custom wedding dress maker employs 5 seamstresses to assist her with alterations. During the winter months the demand for her services declines, thereby her labor and .
a. decreasing; supply
b. decreasing; demand
c. increasing; demand
d. increasing; shortage
e. increasing; supply
45) Offering early retirement to employees in order to handle a labor surplus could:
a. result in a labor shortage.
b. result in increased turnover of other employees.
c. increase costs for the organization temporarily.
d. still result in needing to lay off employees.
e. Both a and c are correct.
46) When using transfers or promotions to deal with a labor surplus in order to avoid a layoff, an organization must first consider that:
a. employees cannot be laid off after they have been transferred.
b. early retirement packages must be the first approach.
c. a job analysis must be completed.
d. the employees they want to transfer may not have the necessary skills to perform the new jobs.
e. compensation costs may increase.
47) Frederick’s Fine Jewelry, which follows a differentiation strategy by making custom jewelry, is experiencing a labor shortage of front end sales clerks. In order to solve this issue the store most likely will to fill the positions.
a. hire temporary workers
b. transfer current employees
c. outsource
d. recruit externally
e. Both b and d are correct.
48) Which workforce planning tactic should be used to most quickly deal with a labor surplus?
a. Early retirement
b. Layoff
c. Hiring freeze
d. Attrition
e. Transfer
49) The main driver of companies wanting to pursue offshoring is:
a. fewer employee concerns.
b. cheaper wages.
c. labor surpluses.
d. low unemployment rates.
e. less technological skills.
50) When determining if someone meets the definition of an independent contractor, an organization must look at all of the following EXCEPT:
a. employee benefits provided.
b. expenses reimbursed.
c. office space provided.
d. profit or loss incurred.
e. instruction received.
51) Recruitment involves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. identifying potential employees.
b. building the competency of potential employees.
c. convincing potential employees to apply for a job.
d. communicating job requirements.
e. explaining the company culture and values.
52) The following are all necessary in order to have a successful recruitment process EXCEPT:
a. designing a clear and accurate recruitment advertisement.
b. identifying the best sources for recruitment.
c. determining what outcome you are looking for.
d. having a recruiter, either internal or external, assist with the process.
e. having a full understanding of the job duties and qualifications.
53) Which of the following jobs would most likely not be appropriate to advertise for on-line?
a. Nurse
b. Secretary
c. Accountant
d. Manager
e. Janitor
54) Technology has impacted recruitment by offering the following options to help manage the process EXCEPT:
a. application Service Providers.
b. recruitment application packages.
c. replacement charts.
d. online job postings and applications.
e. enterprise Resource Planning.
55) Truth-in-hiring lawsuits can be reduced by doing all of the following EXCEPT:
a. offering a job contingent on acceptable references and the necessary background checks.
b. excluding employment-at-will information in an offer letter.
c. providing a realistic job preview.
d. do not provide amounts of expected bonuses or commissions in the offer letter.
e. provide up to date information about the company and the job.
56) PQR Logistics asked for information from their management staff about how timely the recruiters were at responding to their recruitment needs, whether they felt that quality applicants were being interviewed and hired, and how the overall recruitment process was working. PQR is using which recruitment metric?
a. Hiring manager satisfaction
b. Time-to-fill
c. Cost-per-hire
d. Time-to-start
e. Turnover
57) At PQR Logistics the Logistics Director requested that the two Warehouse Supervisor positions be filled on October 1. An offer was made to Supervisor A on October 16 and to Supervisor B on October 21. Both Supervisors accepted the offer on these dates. Supervisor A started on November 5 and Supervisor B started on November 14. What was the time to start for Supervisor A and what was the time to fill for Supervisor B?
a. 16 and 45
b. 21 and 45
c. 36 and 21
d. 16 and 21
e. 16 and 36
58) Family Crisis Center had 100 applicants for its Executive Director position. Of the 100, 50 were identified as meeting the qualifications. Of those, 20 were received from the website ad, 18 were received from the newspaper ad and 12 came from employee referrals. Which recruitment source had the best yield ratio?
a. Newspaper ad
b. Employee referrals
c. Website ad
d. Both a and b
e. None of the above because they did not reach a 75% yield ratio.
59) A selection tool needs to be a consistent method of prediction over a certain period of time or across a group of raters. This consistency demonstrates:
a. validity.
b. person-organization fit.
c. bias.
d. person-job fit.
e. reliability.
60) Personality inventories can identify certain characteristics EXCEPT:
a. whether someone has strong analytical skills.
b. whether someone will be dependable.
c. whether someone is outgoing or shy.
d. whether someone may have anger management issues.
e. whether someone will be cooperative with others.
61) All of the following are correct in regard to structured interviewing EXCEPT:
a. better job-related questions can be asked to determine if the individual will be successful.
b. it takes only a few minutes to determine if an applicant will be a good fit.
c. behavioral interviews are often more helpful in telling how the applicant has actually handled situations in the past.
d. the process is more legally defensible should a claim of discrimination be filed.
e. the same type of information is gathered about all applicants making it easier to do comparisons.
62) Marvin was disappointed to learn that he was no longer being considered for the construction foreman position. He did well in the initial screening interview, passed his physical abilities test, but did not do well in the panel interview step. If he would have had a good panel interview he would have went on for a final interview with the VP of Operations. This organization used the:
a. multiple-hurdle approach.
b. multiple-compensatory approach.
c. core competency approach.
d. multiple-cutoff approach.
e. compensatory approach.
63) You are designing the selection process for an assembly line position. Which of the following selection methods would you most likely include in the selection process?
a. Application, interview, references
b. Application, interview, honesty test, physical ability test
c. Application, interview, criminal record check
d. Application, interview, references, physical ability test
e. Application, interview, criminal history check, competency test
64) If you administer a selection tool and collect performance data at the same time, you are testing for:
a. concurrent criterion-related validity.
b. construct validity.
c. content validity.
d. predictive criterion-related validity.
e. test-retest validity.
65) In order to be effective, learning objectives should:
a. describe what will be learned and how it should be applied on the job.
b. designed by upper management in order to show their support for the training.
c. be kept very broad so that they can be applied across departments and employees.
d. be based on what management identifies as important information for the employee to have.
e. explain what knowledge the employee must have before being permitted to attend the training.
66) In order to teach all employees how to use the organization’s HR information system to enroll in their benefit plans, an online tutorial was created to take the employee through the process step by step. This will save time on classroom learning and paying an instructor. This would be an example of implementing training that is:
a. low tech and high touch.
b. high tech and high touch.
c. low tech and low touch.
d. high tech and low touch.
e. Both a and d are correct.
67) Janet prefers to attend training programs that offer group discussion and role playing opportunities because it helps her remember the information. Therefore, Janet prefers training that is:
a. high tech.
b. high touch.
c. low tech.
d. low touch.
e. Both b and c are correct.
68) Requiring an employee to watch a DVD about how to safely operate a new piece of equipment, having them work with someone for one week using the new piece of equipment, then also having them complete an online assessment to test their knowledge of the equipment would be an example of:
a. E-learning.
b. blended learning.
c. operations and procedures manuals.
d. simulation.
e. on the job training.
69) Which of the following statements is most accurate in regard to how organizational demands impact training?
a. In depth training is critical for an organization using a differentiation strategy.
b. Large, mature organization’s find it difficult to have the resources to reward or acknowledge training participation.
c. A smaller company most likely uses e-learning to train employees.
d. A company who has a cost leadership strategy will try to identify ways to save training costs.
e. A company focused on innovation will most likely have training which emphasizes customer service skills.
70) An organization designing an ethics training program should keep all of the following in mind in regard to the content EXCEPT:
a. ensure that training offered is available and accessible to everyone.
b. include ethics training as part of new hire orientation.
c. offer ethics training just to those who have a profession which requires an oath related to ethics.
d. include discussion about the importance of and regulations related to non-discrimination.
e. ensure that any training program offered discusses how ethics may be related to the topic.
71) When an employee has behavioral or motivation issues that are impacting performance you should:
a. define how their performance will be evaluated and what each standard means.
b. be sure the employee is clear about what is expected of them in their role.
c. show how performance measures support what the organization views as important.
d. consider redesigning the job if role concerns exist.
e. All of the above are correct.
72) Discipline can be either:
a. positive or progressive.
b. progressive or person-focused.
c. punitive or progressive.
d. preventative or positive.
e. progressive or preventative.
73) If you are trying to take a more positive approach to disciplinary action, all of the following statements are accurate EXCEPT:
a. documentation is unnecessary since the intention is not to terminate the employee.
b. constructive feedback will be provided so that improvement can occur.
c. you will identify and address problems early before they get out of control.
d. the focus is on problem solving rather than punishing the employee.
e. the employee is given the responsibility of improving their own behavior.
74) All of the following are examples of how organizational demands can impact the performance management system of an organization EXCEPT:
a. considering the organizational culture and how it will impact whether employees support and understand the performance management system selected.
b. designing a system which will most fairly evaluate telecommuters since they have limited face to face interaction with coworkers and their supervisor.
c. creating a system which is both procedurally and distributively just in the eyes of the employees.
d. ensuring that the evaluation method selected is aligned with the company strategy to maintain competitive advantage.
e. determining which evaluation approach makes the most sense given the size of the organization.
75) LMN Company recently received an order for one million products to be completed and shipped within the next two months. In order to create an incentive for employees to work as a team and increase production, which evaluation method may be most useful?
a. Direct measures
b. Forced-choice
c. Critical incident
d. Graphic rating scales
e. BARS
76) All of the following can impact an expatriate’s performance evaluation EXCEPT:
a. method of evaluation.
b. host country performance standards.
c. home country performance standards.
d. compensation adjustment.
e. timeliness of the evaluation.
77) In order to be considered a benchmark job, the job needs to be all of the following EXCEPT:
a. well known and recognized.
b. never previously used to set wage rates in the external labor market.
c. clearly and concisely described.
d. currently at an appropriate wage rate.
e. stable over time in regard to responsibilities.
78) An organization following a differentiation strategy would most likely offer a compensation mix which was made up of:
a. annual salary.
b. comprehensive benefits.
c. performance bonus.
d. b and c are correct.
e. All of the above.
79) Which of the following would cause an organization to increase their starting rate for a position and thereby create wage compression for current employees?
a. Labor shortage
b. Increase in interest rates
c. COLAs
d. Decrease in inflation rates
e. Labor surplus
80) When determining how to set their level of wages, an organization should consider the following:
a. Leading the market will create turnover.
b. Paying at market will help control labor expenses.
c. Lagging the market will lead to increased pay satisfaction.
d. Paying at market will decrease the number of applicants.
e. Leading the market will not attract more or better applicants.
81) To aid in determining what is compensable work time:
a. managers need to verify the accuracy of time records submitted.
b. consistently enforce a compensable time policy and discipline as appropriate.
c. clear polices should be in place explaining what is considered compensable time.
d. All of the above.
e. Only a and b are correct.
82) Employee motivation is primarily influenced by all of the following factors EXCEPT:
a. instrumentality.
b. goal setting.
c. valence.
d. ownership.
e. expectancy.
83) Jodi’s evaluation score was a 70% which meant she was eligible for a 3% increase to her base hourly rate. This is an example of a:
a. differential piecework plan.
b. merit pay increase.
c. lump sum merit bonus.
d. straight piecework plan.
e. standard hour plan.
84) Typically, RJS Industries gives employee an increase to their base rate based on the score they receive on their performance evaluation. However, if an employee is red circled, rather than an increase to their hourly rate, they receive a bonus equivalent to what the increase would have been. RJS uses which of the following incentive plans?
a. Merit pay increase
b. Lump sum merit bonus
c. Standard hour plan
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above
85) Which of the following statements best explains why an organization may want to use a team incentive plan rather than an individual incentive plan?
a. The efforts of a team are more difficult to monitor than each employee’s behavior.
b. Free rider issues can be avoided by using team based incentives.
c. Team incentives work best when jobs can function independently.
d. If individual incentives are overlooked, team performance will decrease.
e. Team incentives encourage employees to focus on communicating and cooperating with each other.
86) All of the following are examples of components of an executive compensation package EXCEPT:
a. fitness club membership.
b. stock options.
c. profit sharing bonus.
d. social security.
e. health insurance.
87) Which of the following employee benefits provides compensation for 26 weeks to an employee who lost their job due to no fault of their own?
a. Long term disability insurance
b. Workers’ compensation
c. Social security
d. Unemployment insurance
e. Medicare
88) In order to be eligible for unemployment insurance an individual must do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. file a claim with the appropriate state unemployment insurance agency.
b. decline job offers for 26 weeks in order to remain eligible.
c. meet their state’s eligibility requirements.
d. follow guidelines such as reporting income and job offers in order to remain eligible for benefits.
e. register with their state’s employment service for reemployment assistance or training program information.
89) The purpose of consumer driven health plans is:
a. to provide access to a health insurance plan but have the employee pay the full cost.
b. to offer only a high deductible plan which will decrease employees’ use of the health insurance plan.
c. to pay an employee wages when they lose time away from work for a personal illness or injury.
d. to require the employee to select a primary care physician who can provide all of their health care needs.
e. to give employees responsibility for their health care costs so that they pay more attention to their health and make better health care decisions.
90) A catastrophic health care plan which does not pay for the first few thousand dollars of an individual’s medical costs each year and only pays when the employee has a major medical issue is known as a:
a. traditional health care plan.
b. health reimbursement account.
c. health savings account.
d. high deductible health plan.
e. self funded plan.
91) If an organization is pursuing a cost leadership strategy they will most likely offer:
a. pension plans.
b. a basic health insurance plan.
c. educational assistance.
d. an employee assistance program.
e. a variety of employee wellness programs.
92) The Norris-LaGuardia Act of 1932:
a. made it easier for employees to engage in union-organizing activities.
b. gave employers full power over how employees could be treated.
c. eliminated the right of employees to strike.
d. is no longer in effect.
e. holds unions liable for any unlawful activities by its members.
93) The Teamsters are attempting to unionize the warehouse workers at Bruce’s employer. One of the union representatives has called Bruce repeatedly at home to convince him the union is a good thing and told him that if he does not support them there is the potential he could lose his job. This statement made by the union representative is known as a/an:
a. union right.
b. collective bargaining.
c. unfair labor practice.
d. right to work law.
e. employee requirement.
94) In order for a union to be recognized by an organization:
a. all of its employees must sign a letter requesting to be unionized.
b. the employer writes a letter to the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Services.
c. at least a third of the employees must sign a petition which is sent to the NLRB.322
d. a secret ballot election must result in a majority of the employees voting for the union.
e. the Department of Labor must rule in the union’s favor.
95) All of the following are mandatory bargaining topics EXCEPT:
a. pension plans.
b. health insurance.
c. wages.
d. retiree benefits.
e. grievance processes.
96) Which of the following statements about worker-management groups is most accurate?
a. They are permitted to set employee wages and working conditions.
b. Participation on the group can be limited to those in a union.
c. The group’s purpose is to enhance productivity improvements within an organization.
d. The NLRB monitors each group’s activities through a formal reporting structure.
e. They originated as a result of the Taft-Hartley Act.
97) Bruce operates a small medical practice with 10 employees. He offers a competitive compensation and benefits package. He has implemented an annual performance evaluation system that includes goal setting for each employee. He also has set aside money in his budget to provide educational assistance for his staff. He also allows the staff to self schedule so that they can meet their personal needs while still meeting the office and patient needs. Due to all of this his office has experienced minimal turnover during the past 3 years. This can be best described as a/an:
a. internal alignment.
b. deadly combination.
c. uniqueness.
d. external alignment.
e. powerful connection.