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BS,MBA, PHD
Adelphi University/Devry
Apr-2000 - Mar-2005
HOD ,Professor
Adelphi University
Sep-2007 - Apr-2017
FIN540 Week 11 Final Exam Questions
QUESTION 1
Which one of the following aspects of banks is considered most relevant to businesses when choosing a bank?
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Convenience of location. |
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Competitive cost of services provided. |
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Size of the bank's deposits. |
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Experience of personnel. |
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Loyalty and willingness to assume lending risks. |
8 points
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements concerning the MM extension with growth is NOT
CORRECT?
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The tax shields should be discounted at the unlevered cost of equity. |
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The value of a growing tax shield is greater than the value of a constant tax shield. |
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For a given D/S, the levered cost of equity is greater than the levered cost of equity under MM’s original (with tax) assumptions. |
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For a given D/S, the WACC is less than the WACC under MM’s original (with tax) assumptions. |
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The total value of the firm increases with the amount of debt. |
8 points
QUESTION 3
A firm’s credit policy consists of which of the following items?
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Credit period, cash discounts, credit standards, receivables monitoring. |
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Credit period, cash discounts, credit standards, collection policy. |
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Credit period, cash discounts, receivables monitoring, collection policy. |
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Cash discounts, credit standards, receivables monitoring, collection policy. |
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Credit period, receivables monitoring, credit standards, collection policy. |
8 points
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements concerning the MM extension with growth is NOT
CORRECT?
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The tax shields should be discounted at the cost of debt. |
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The value of a growing tax shield is greater than the value of a constant tax shield. |
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For a given D/S, the levered cost of equity is greater than the levered cost of equity under MM’s original (with tax) assumptions. |
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For a given D/S, the WACC is greater than the WACC under MM’s original (with tax) assumptions. |
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The total value of the firm increases with the amount of debt. |
8 points
QUESTION 5
For markets to be in equilibrium (that is, for there to be no strong pressure for prices to depart from their current levels),
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The expected rate of return must be equal to the required rate of return; that is, . |
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The past realized rate of return must be equal to the expected rate of return; that is, . |
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The required rate of return must equal the realized rate of return; that is, . |
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all companies must pay dividends. |
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no companies can be in danger of declaring bankruptcy. |
8 points
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true of the EOQ model? Note that the optimal order quantity, Q, will be called EOQ.
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If the fixed per order cost increases by 20%, then EOQ will increase by 20% |
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If the annual sales, in units, increases by 20%, then EOQ will increase by 20%. |
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If the average inventory increases by 20%, then the total carrying costs will increase by 20%. |
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If the average inventory increases by 20% the total order costs will increase by 20%. |
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The EOC is the same for all comppanies. |
8 points
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not correct?
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Collection policy is how a firm goes about collecting past-due accounts. |
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A more aggressive collection policy will reduce bad debt expenses, but may also decrease sales. |
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Collection policy usually has little impact on sales since collecting past-due accounts occurs only after the customer has already purchased. |
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Typically a firm will turn over an account to a collection agency only after it has tried several times on its own to collect the account. |
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A lax collection policy will frequently lead to an increase in accounts receivable. |
8 points
QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements about pension plans if any, is incorrect?
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A defined contribution plan is, in effect, a savings plan that is funded by employers, although many plans also permit additional contributions by employees. |
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Under a defined benefit plan, the employer agrees to give retirees a specifically defined benefit, such as $500 per month or 50 percent of the employee’s final salary. |
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A portable pension plan is one that an employee can carry from one employer to another. |
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An employer’s obligation is satisfied under a defined contribution plan when it makes the required contributions to the plan. The risk of inadequate investment returns is borne by the employee. |
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If assets exceed the present value of benefits, the pension plan is fully funded. |
8 points
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is NOT a real option?
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The option to expand production if the product is successful. |
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The option to buy shares of stock if its price goes up. |
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The option to expand into a new geographic region. |
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The option to abandon a project. |
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The option to switch the type of fuel used in an industrial furnace. |
8 points
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements about defined contribution plans is incorrect?
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A defined contribution plan places the risk of poor pension portfolio performance on the employee. |
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In general, employees can choose the investment vehicle under a defined contribution plan. Thus, highly risk-averse employees can choose low-risk investments, while more risk-tolerant employees can choose high-risk investments. |
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In a defined contribution plan, the employer must make larger-than-average contributions to the pension plan when investment returns have been below expectations. |
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Defined benefit plans are used more often by large corporations than by small companies. |
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The PBGC insures a portion of pension benefits. |
8 points
QUESTION 11
Which of the following would cause average inventory holdings to decrease, other things held constant?
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Fixed order costs double. |
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The purchase price of inventory items decreases by 50 percent. |
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The carrying price of an item decreases (as a percent of purchase price). |
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The sales forecast is revised downward by 10 percent. |
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Interest rates fall. |
8 points
QUESTION 12
In a portfolio of three different stocks, which of the following could NOT
be true?
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The riskiness of the portfolio is less than the riskiness of each of the stocks if they were held in isolation. |
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The riskiness of the portfolio is greater than the riskiness of one or two of the stocks. |
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The beta of the portfolio is less than the betas of each of the individual stocks. |
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The beta of the portfolio is greater than the beta of one or two of the individual stocks’ betas. |
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The beta of the portfolio can not be equal to 1. |
8 points
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?
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One advantage of forward contracts is that they are default free. |
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Futures contracts generally trade on an organized exchange and are marked to market daily. |
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Goods are never delivered under forward contracts, but are almost always delivered under futures contracts. |
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There are futures contracts for currencies but no forward contracts for currencies. |
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Futures contracts don’t have any margin requirements but forward contracts do. |
8 points
QUESTION 14
The major contribution of the Miller model is that it demonstrates that
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personal taxes increase the value of using corporate debt. |
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personal taxes decrease the value of using corporate debt. |
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financial distress and agency costs reduce the value of using corporate debt. |
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equity costs increase with financial leverage. |
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debt costs increase with financial leverage. |
8 points
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements concerning the MM extension with growth is NOT
CORRECT?
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The tax shields should be discounted at the unlevered cost of equity. |
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The value of a growing tax shield is greater than the value of a constant tax shield. |
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For a given D/S, the levered cost of equity is greater than the levered cost of equity under MM’s original (with tax) assumptions. |
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For a given D/S, the WACC is greater than the WACC under MM’s original (with tax) assumptions. |
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The total value of the firm is independent of the amount of debt it uses. |
8 points
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are the factors for the Fama-French model?
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The excess market return, a size factor, and a book-to-market factor. |
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The excess market return, a debt factor, and a book-to-market factor. |
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The excess market return, a size factor, and a debt. |
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A debt factor, a size factor, and a book-to-market factor. |
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The excess market return, an industrial production factor, and a book-to-market factor. |
8 points
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
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Tests have shown that the betas of individual stocks are unstable over time, but that the betas of large portfolios are reasonably stable over time. |
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Richard Roll has argued that it is possible to test the CAPM to see if it is correct. |
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Tests have shown that the risk/return relationship appears to be linear, but the slope of the relationship is greater than that predicted by the CAPM. |
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Tests have shown that the betas of individual stocks are stable over time, but that the betas of large portfolios are much less stable. |
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The most widely cited study of the validity of the CAPM is one performed by Modigliani and Miller. |
8 points
QUESTION 18
Which of the following are NOT ways risk management can be used to increase the value of a firm?
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Risk management can increase debt capacity. |
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Risk management can help a firm maintain its optimal capital budget. |
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Risk management can reduce the expected costs of financial distress. |
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Risk management can help firms minimize taxes. |
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Risk management can allow managers to defer receipt of their bonuses and thus postpone tax payments. |
8 points
QUESTION 19
Which one of the following is an example of a “flexibility” option?
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A company has an option to invest in a project today or to wait a year. |
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A company has an option to close down an operation if it turns out to be unprofitable. |
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A company agrees to pay more to build a plant in order to be able to change the plant’s inputs and/or outputs at a later date if conditions change. |
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A company invests in a project today to gain knowledge that may enable it to expand into different markets at a later date. |
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A company invests in a jet aircraft so that its CEO, who must travel frequently, can arrive for distant meetings feeling less tired than if he had to fly commercial. |
8 points
QUESTION 20
Which is the best measure of risk for an asset held in isolation, and which is the best measure for an asset held in a diversified portfolio?
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Variance; correlation coefficient. |
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Standard deviation; correlation coefficient. |
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Beta; variance. |
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Coefficient of variation; beta. |
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Beta; beta. |
8 points
QUESTION 21
Which of the following will NOT increase the value of a real option?
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Lengthening the time in which a real option must be exercised. |
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An increase in the volatility of the underlying source of risk. |
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An increase in the risk-free rate. |
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An increase in the cost of obtaining the real option. |
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A decrease in the probability that a competitor will enter the market of the project in question. |
8 points
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements concerning capital structure theory is NOT
CORRECT?
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The major contribution of Miller's theory is that it demonstrates that personal taxes decrease the value of using corporate debt. |
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Under MM with zero taxes, financial leverage has no effect on a firm’s value. |
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Under MM with corporate taxes, the value of a levered firm exceeds the value of the unlevered firm by the product of the tax rate times the market value dollar amount of debt. |
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Under MM with corporate taxes, rs increases with leverage, and this increase exactly offsets the tax benefits of debt financing. |
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Under MM with corporate taxes, the effect of business risk is automatically incorporated because rsL is a function of rsU. |
8 points
QUESTION 23
You have the following data on three stocks:
Stock Standard Deviation Beta
A 0.15 0.79
B 0.25 0.61
C 0.20 1.29
As a risk minimizer, you would choose Stock if it is to be held in isolation and Stock if it is to be held as part of a well-diversified portfolio.
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A; A. |
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A; B. |
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B; C. |
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C; A. |
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C; B. |
8 points
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is NOT a potential problem with beta and its estimation?
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Sometimes a security or project does not have a past history which can be used as a basis for calculating beta. |
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Sometimes, during a period when the company is undergoing a change such as toward more leverage or riskier assets, the calculated beta will be drastically different than the “true” or “expected future” beta. |
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The beta of “the market,” can change over time, sometimes drastically. |
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Sometimes the past data used to calculate beta do not reflect the likely risk of the firm for the future because conditions have changed. |
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There is a wide confidence interval around a typical stock’s estimated beta. |
8 points
QUESTION 25
Which of the following statements about project risk analysis in not-for-profit firms is incorrect?
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The market risk of a project is not relevant to not-for-profit firms. |
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A project’s corporate beta measures the contribution of the project to the overall corporate risk of the firm. |
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A project’s corporate beta is found (at least conceptually) by regressing returns on the project against returns on the market portfolio. |
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A project’s corporate beta is defined as (σP/σF)rPF, where σP |
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In practice, it is usually difficult, if not impossible, to directly measure a project’s corporate risk, so project risk analysis typically focuses on stand-alone risk. |
8 points
QUESTION 26
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
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The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.3 and the typical R2 |
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The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.94 and the typical R2 |
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The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.3 and the typical R2 for a large portfolio is about 0.94. |
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The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.94 and the typical R2 for a portfolio is also about 0.94. |
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The typical R2 for a stock is about 0.6 and the typical R2 for a portfolio is also about 0.6. |
8 points
QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
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The Capital Market Line (CML) is a curved line that connects the risk-free rate and the market portfolio. |
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The slope of the CML is (M – rRF)/bM. |
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All portfolios that lie on the CML to the right of sM are inefficient. |
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All portfolios that lie on the CML to the left of sM are inefficient. |
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The slope of the CML is (M – rRF)/sM.. |
8 points
QUESTION 28
Which of the following statements about pension plan portfolio performance is incorrect?
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Pension fund sponsors must evaluate the performance of their portfolio managers periodically as a basis for future asset allocations. |
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Alpha analysis, which relies on the Capital Asset Pricing Model, considers the risk of the portfolio when measuring performance. |
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Peer comparison examines the relative performance of portfolio managers with similar investment objectives. |
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A portfolio annual return of 12 percent from one investment advisor is not necessarily better than a return of 10 percent from another advisor. |
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In managing the retiree portfolio, fund managers often use immunization techniques such as alpha analysis to eliminate, or at least significantly reduce, the risk associated with changing interest rates. |
8 points
QUESTION 29
Stock A’s beta is 1.5 and Stock B’s beta is 0.5. Which of the following statements must be true about these securities? (Assume market equilibrium.)
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When held in isolation, Stock A has greater risk than Stock B. |
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Stock B must be a more desirable addition to a portfolio than Stock A. |
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Stock A must be a more desirable addition to a portfolio than Stock B. |
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The expected return on Stock A should be greater than that on Stock B. |
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The expected return on Stock B should be greater than that on Stock A. |
8 points
QUESTION 30
A swap is a method used to reduce financial risk. Which of the following statements about swaps, if any, is NOT CORRECT?
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A swap involves the exchange of cash payment obligations. |
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The earliest swaps were currency swaps, in which companies traded debt denominated in different currencies, say dollars and pounds. |
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Swaps are very often arranged by a financial intermediary, who may or may not take the position of one of the counterparties. |
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A problem with swaps is that no standardized contracts exist, which has prevented the development of a secondary market. |
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A company can swap fixed interest payments for floating interest payments. |
8 points
QUESTION 31
Oklahoma Instruments (OI) is considering a project called F-200 that has an up-front cost of $250,000. The project’s subsequent cash flows are critically dependent on whether another of its products, F-100, becomes an industry standard. There is a 50% chance that the F-100 will become the industry standard, in which case the F-200’s expected cash flows will be $110,000 at the end of each of the next 5 years. There is a 50% chance that the F-100 will not become the industry standard, in which case the F-200’s expected cash flows will be $25,000 at the end of each of the next 5 years. Assume that the cost of capital is 12%.
Based on the above information, what is the F-200’s expected net present value?
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-$6,678 |
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-$3,251 |
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$15,303 |
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$20,004 |
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$45,965 |
8 points
QUESTION 32
Suppose you borrow $2,000 from a bank for one year at a stated annual interest rate of 14 percent, with interest prepaid (a discounted loan). Also, assume that the bank requires you to maintain a compensating balance equal to 20 percent of the initial loan value. What effective annual interest rate are you being charged?
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14.00% |
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8.57% |
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16.28% |
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21.21% |
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28.00% |
8 points
QUESTION 33
Picard Orchards requires a $100,000 annual loan in order to pay laborers to tend and harvest its fruit crop. Picard borrows on a discount interest basis at a nominal annual rate of 11 percent. If Picard must actually receive $100,000 net proceeds to finance its crop, then what must be the face value of the note?
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$111,000 |
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$100,000 |
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$112,360 |
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$ 89,000 |
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$108,840 |
8 points
QUESTION 34
The Kimberly Corporation is a zero growth firm with an expected EBIT of $100,000 and a corporate tax rate of 30%. Kimberly uses $500,000 of 12.0% debt, and the cost of equity to an unlevered firm in the same risk class is 16.0%.
What is the firm's cost of equity?
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21.0% |
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23.3% |
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25.9% |
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28.8% |
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32.0% |
8 points
QUESTION 35
XYZ Company needs to borrow $200,000 from its bank. The bank has offered the company a 12-month installment loan (monthly payments) with 9 percent add-on interest. What is the effective annual rate (EAR) of this loan?
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16.22% |
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17.97% |
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17.48% |
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18.67% |
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18.00% |
FIN-----------540----------- We-----------ek -----------11 -----------Fin-----------al -----------Exa-----------m -----------