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BS,MBA, PHD
Adelphi University/Devry
Apr-2000 - Mar-2005
HOD ,Professor
Adelphi University
Sep-2007 - Apr-2017
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Chapter 5:
1.    To represent relationships, ________ are added to tables.
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A.
entity keys
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B.
normalized keys
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C.
foreign keys
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D.
locking keys
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E.
value keys
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2.    If a student is allowed to have multiple majors, and advisors for each major are assigned to multiple students, this would be an example of a(n) ________ relationship.
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A.
1:N
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B.
N:M
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C.
1:1
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D.
one-of-a-kind
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E.
0:M
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3.    Prior to implementing a database in a DBMS, the developers perform _________ in order to improve the structure of the database tables.
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A.   structuring
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B.   normalization
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C.   transformation
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D.   data analysis
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E.    modeling
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4.    If Falcon Security chooses to use a SQL DBMS such as Access, it will be able to __________.
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A.
store the video footage in the same database as the metadata
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B.
face some risk and uncertainty while developing the database with
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C.
use a new, unfamiliar product to create the database
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D.
gain knowledge and experience with a new form of database
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E.
store only the metadata about each video in the database
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5.    The elements that make up a database application are: forms, application programs, reports, and __________.
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A.
backups
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B.
queries
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C.
data views
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D.
relationships
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E.
performance monitors
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6.    The following are all processing operations of a DBMS except _________.
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A.
insert data
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B.
autocorrect data
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C.
delete data
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D.
read data
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E.
modify data
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7.    In the context of a database, _________ is data that describes the content of the database.
Â
A.
meta-elements
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B.
key data
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C.
metadata
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D.
megadata
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E.
predictive data
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8.    Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a database management system (DBMS)?
Â
A.
Establish relationships between tables.
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B.
Port the data to the Internet.
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C.
Enable the data to be backed up.
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D.
Enable data to be added and modified.
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E.
Create tables.
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9.    In data modeling, a(n) ________ is something that the users want to store data about.
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A.
primary key
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B.
attribute
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C.
relationship
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D.
entity
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E.
foreign key
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10. The three essential elements of the definition of a database are ________.
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A.
fields; relationship among fields in tables; metadata
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B.
tables; metadata; validation rules
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C.
tables; relationship among rows in tables; metadata
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D.
validation rules; data; tables
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E.
tables; relationship among rows in tables; validation rules
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11. The purpose of a database is to __________.
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A.
keep track of things that share a single theme
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B.
keep track of things that involve multiple themes
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C.
eliminate the need to learn about spreadsheets
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D.
make the use of the cloud more straightforwardly
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F.    eliminate the need to learn programming
12.  Every normalized table has ________.
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A.
repeating fields
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B.
multiple topics
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C.
duplicated data
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D.
a single theme
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E.
data integrity problems
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13. With today's focus on Internet applications, it is far less necessary that database systems impose ________ restrictions on transaction processing.
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A.
ELITE
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B.
ACID
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C.
ELAC
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D.
EPIC
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E.
AVID
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14. Which of the following statements is correct?
Â
A.
The user doesn't need to dedicate special time to reviewing the data model.
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B.
If corrections are needed in the database structure, the requirements step is the best time to.
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A database is a model of how only managers view their business world.
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D.
If the data model is incorrect, the database can still be used successfully.
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E.
Do not proceed with database design unless the data model is accurate.
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15. The designers of a database typically begin by developing a ________ in order to construct a logical representation of the database before it is implemented.
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A.
3D representation
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B.
data model
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C.
network diagram
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D.
line drawing
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E.
process model
16. _______ is an international standard language for processing a database.
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A.
PHP
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B.
HTML
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C.
SQL
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D.
DB2
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E.
RDBMS
17. Data integrity problems are likely to occur when __________.
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A.
the data design has a N:M relationship
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B.
normal forms are used
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C.
data is duplicated
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D.
attribute conflicts are not resolved
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E.
minimum cardinalities are not met
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18. In databases, bytes are grouped into ________ which describe characteristics of the object being stored.
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A.
relationships
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B.
columns
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C.
rows
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D.
records
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E.
tables
19. Which of the following is true of the database development process?
Â
A.
User review of the data model is avoided because it is not helpful in data modeling.
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B.
Problems in the data model will not affect the application.
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C.
A database is a model of how the developers view their business world.
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D.
Changing a relationship from 1:N to N:M is simply a matter of changing the notations.
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E.
The database structure cannot be changed during the data modeling stage.
20. A key aspect of database administration is to set __________, or rules that govern precisely what each user can see and do with the data in the database.
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A.
user precedence
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B.
power users
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C.
permissions
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D.
usage regulations
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E.
supervisor rules
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21. Every database table must have a ________, a field (or fields) that contains a unique value for every table record.
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A.
predictive key
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B.
foreign key
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C.
relationship line
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D.
primary key
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E.
primary element
22. When you state a business rule that pertains to your organization, such as "At my university, a student may declare only one single major," you are actually defining the __________ of the relationship between students and majors.
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A.
maximum cardinality
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B.
normality
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C.
minimum cardinality
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D.
foreign keys
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E.
relational limits
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23. Characteristics of traditional database application programs include all of the following except _________.
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A.
written in programming languages like COBOL, C++, and VisualBasic
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B.
they are thick client applications
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C.
involve a server to house and serve data
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D.
accessed via browsers
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E.
require that the application programs be installed on the user computers
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24. The explosive growth in data expected through 2026 means that ________ is even more important.
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A.
Â
B.
data prediction
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C.
business intelligence
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D.
spyware
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E.
data outsourcing
25. If two users of a database access the same record and both attempt to transaction with that record, the ________ problem is likely to occur.
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A.
lost update
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B.
power surging
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C.
transaction processing
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D.
processing
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E.
Web browsing
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Chapter 6
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1.    Advantages of content delivery networks include all of the following except ________.
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A.
pay-as-you-go
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B.
higher costs to mobile users
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C.
faster load times
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D.
protection from DOS attacks
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E.
increased reliability
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2.    A network that relies primarily on wireless connection of devices located near to a single person is a ___________.
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A.
limited area network
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B.
private area network
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C.
wide area network
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D.
personal area network
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E.
local area network
3.    Communication carriers are unhappy with the regulations that impose ________ and are currently engaged in legal battles to eliminate the concept.
Â
A.
hop restrictions
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B.
bandwidth limits
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C.
maximum transmission speeds
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D.
wide area networks
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E.
net neutrality
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4. Communication carriers are unhappy with the regulations that impose ________ and are currently engaged in legal battles to eliminate the concept.
A.
hop restrictions
B.
bandwidth limits
C.
maximum transmission speeds
D.
wide area networks
E.
net neutrality
Now
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4.    A common protocol that enables files to be moved from one computer to another over the Internet is _________.
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A.
FTP
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B.
XML
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C.
SMTP
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D.
SNMP
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E.
HTTPS
5.    Which of the following statements is NOT correct for private clouds?
Â
A.
They farm of servers managed with elastic load balancing.
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B.
They are built on top of public cloud infrastructure using VPN tunneling.
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C.
Private clouds provide security within the organizational infrastructure.
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D.
Private clouds can possibly provide secure access from outside that infrastructure.
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E.
They enable the business to maintain physical control over its stored data.
6.    The most likely reason that an organization should not consider using the cloud is ______.
Â
A.
the organization feels the clouds benefits are unclear
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B.
the organization faces too much competition in its industry segment
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C.
the organization is not technically sophisticated
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D.
the organization is legally prohibited from losing physical control over its data
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E.
the organization wants to wait for the cloud to mature
7.    An important cloud design philosophy that defines all interactions among computing devices as services in a formal standardized way is termed the ________.
Â
A.
simple-option access
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B.
service-options available
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C.
standard-operational access
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D.
service-oriented architecture
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E.
seamless-operations architecture
8.    In order to get on the Internet from a location such as a coffee shop, your device uses your __________, which is then substituted with the shop LAN's _________.
          Which of the following is the most accurate and complete definition of the cloud?
Â
A.
Computers somewhere out there
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B.
A bubble on a network diagram
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C.
Computing resources available to anyone
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D.
Elastic leasing of pooled computer resources over the Internet
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E.
Easily accessible data storage
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9.    The following are all disadvantages of in-house hosting compared to use of the cloud, except ______.
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A.
flexibility and adaptability to fluctuating demand
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B.
capital investment
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C.
visibility of security measures
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D.
development effort
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E.
obsolescence risk
10. Among the following, which is NOT likely to be a way for Falcon Security to use the cloud?
Â
A.
Use Google Mail and Google Drive.
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B.
Use Rackspace for hardware and load whatever operating system they want.
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C.
Use a CDN to distribute its content worldwide.
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D.
Obtain data storage services from Amazon.com's S3 product.
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E.
Use Windows Servers with SQL Server already installed from the Microsoft Azure cloud offerings.
11. The computers in two separated company sites must be connected using a ________.
Â
A.
wide area network (WAN)
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B.
protocol
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C.
local area network (LAN)
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D.
Internet
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E.
intranet
12. The sharing of physical hardware by many organizations in the cloud, termed pooling, is accomplished with ____________.
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A.
provisioning
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B.
visualization
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C.
segmentation
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D.
separation
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E.
virtualization
13. _____ agreements ensure that communications carriers exchange traffic on their networks freely.
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A.
Peering
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B.
Free use
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C.
Hopping
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D.
Neutral
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E.
Exchange
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14. A negative consequence of the expanding use of the cloud will be ______.
Â
A.
reduced availability of cloud services
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B.
large increases in cloud vendor data center job openings
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C.
slower performance of cloud-based services
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D.
higher costs of cloud services
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E.
fewer local jobs that focus on the installation and support of email and other servers
15. A computer ________ is a collection of computers that communicate with one another over transmission lines or wirelessly.
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A.
network
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B.
application
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C.
farm
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D.
server
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E.
database
16. Since companies do not know precisely how much demand will be placed on their computing resources in the future, an attractive element of using the cloud is the fact that it is ________.
Â
A.
flexible
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B.
elastic
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C.
variable
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D.
unpredictable
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E.
Dynamic
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17. Which of the following is true about a VPN?
Â
A.
It uses private networks instead of the public network.
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B.
It encrypts messages to ensure secure transmissions.
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C.
It appears as a secure connection, though it is not.
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D.
It does not provide users with remote access.
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E.
The actual internal LAN addresses are sent in the VPN messages on the Internet.
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18. On a typical e-commerce Web site, a component called the ________ contains programs that obtain product data from a database, manage the shopping cart, and coordinate the checkout process.
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A.
commerce server
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B.
Web browser
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C.
database management system
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D.
Web server
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E.
Internet server
19. A wireless protocol that is becoming ever more common as everyday objects become "smart" devices is _________.
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A.
Redhat
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B.
Jetblack
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C.
Greenline
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D.
Bluetooth
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E.
Whitehot
20. Your Internet Service Provider serves all of the following functions except _________.
Â
A.
provides you with a legitimate Internet address
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B.
provides you a gateway to the Internet
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C.
pays access fees to communication carriers to help pay for the Internet
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D.
collects money from its customers for its services
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E.
allows you to access a personal area network (PAN)
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21. The method of obtaining cloud-based services that include hardware infrastructure, operating system, and possibly a DBMS is termed _______.
Â
A.
DaaS (Data as a Service)
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B.
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
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C.
WaaS (Web as a Service)
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D.
PaaS (Platform as a Service)
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E.
SaaS (Software as a Service)
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22. Which of the following is the distinguishing feature of a LAN as compared to a WAN?
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A.
Single location
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B.
Number of users
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C.
Bandwidth
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D.
Network hardware
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E.
Communication capacity
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23. Suppose Falcon Security wished to utilize a vendor's application software in the cloud. It would need to obtain ________ cloud resources.
Â
A.
SaaS (Software as a Service)
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B.
DaaS (Data as a Service)
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C.
WaaS (Web as a Service)
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D.
PaaS (Platform as a Service)
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E.
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service
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24. A ________ is a set of rules that programs on two communicating devices follow.
Â
A.
signal
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B.
filter
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C.
packet
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D.
protocol
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E.
Language
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25. The computers in two separated company sites must be connected using a ________.
Â
A.
wide area network (WAN)
Â
B.
protocol
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C.
local area network (LAN)
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D.
Internet
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E.
intranet
Chapter 7:
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1. A component of an organization's database program code is a _______, which runs to keep the database consistent when certain conditions occur.
Â
A.
dynamic procedure
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B.
trigger
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C.
flag
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D.
stored procedure
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E.
switching code
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1.    Customer relationship management applications include all of the following except ________.
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A.
relationship management
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B.
solicitation and lead management
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C.
sales applications
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D.
customer support
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E.
customer billing
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2.    The activity of altering existing and designing new business processes to take advantage of new information systems is called _________.
Â
A.
business process remediation
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B.
business process restructuring
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C.
business process revisioning
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D.
business process reengineering
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E.
business process alignment
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3.    The problems presented by workgroup information systems can usually be resolved by ________.
Â
A.
increasing the efficiencies of workgroup processes
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B.
further disintegration of process data
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C.
the workgroup itself
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D.
building collaborative management
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E.
eliminating duplication of data
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4.    __________ measures how well a process achieves organizational strategies.
Â
A.
Process utility
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B.
Process capability
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C.
Process flexibility
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D.
Process effectiveness
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E.
Process efficiency
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5.    The sequence of activities and phases of the customer life cycle are as follows: ________.
Â
A.
attract, sell, categorize, and support
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B.
categorize, sell, support, and attract
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C.
categorize, attract, sell, and support
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D.
attract, categorize, sell, and support
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E.
attract, sell, support, and categorize
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Â
6.    All of the following are security risks associated with the PRIDE system, except ________.
Â
A.
there is no way to have everyone follow a single set of data security procedures
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B.
patient health data can be viewed by other clubs
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C.
patient's data can be used in unintended ways
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D.
patient health data can be viewed by competing trainers
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E.
doctors and trainers may be restricted to viewing only partial data
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Â
7.    In the future, ERP customers will store most of their data on cloud servers managed by cloud vendors and store sensitive data on servers that they manage themselves. This arrangement is known as the _______.
Â
A.
hybrid model
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B.
mixed model
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C.
relational model
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D.
logical model
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E.
joint model
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Â
8.    The most significant contributing factor to problems with data integrity is __________.
Â
A.
data duplication
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B.
limited information
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C.
disjointed processes
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D.
slow processes
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E.
incomplete backups
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Â
9.    One important change that resulted from the movement to enterprise systems was the creation of stronger, faster, and more effective ________ among value chains.
Â
A.
hops
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B.
pathways
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C.
routes
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D.
linkages
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E.
functions
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10. If an organization replaces its existing hardware infrastructure with hardware in the cloud, then installs its own ERP software and databases on that cloud hardware, it is using _______.
Â
A.
PaaS
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B.
ERPaaS
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C.
IaaS
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D.
MaaS
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E.
SaaS
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11. When organizations accept the standardized business processes that are designed into ERP products, they are utilizing ___________ that represent industry best practices.
Â
A.
predictive processes
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B.
inherent processes
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C.
innovative processes
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D.
formulaic processes
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E.
informative processes
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12. organization that is implementing the manufacturing module of an ERP system has created a contest between several workgroups. The workgroup that adopts the ERP module most successfully (based on speed and number of errors) will be awarded a bonus. The intent of such a contest is to deal with __________.
Â
A.
collaborative management
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B.
upgrade stress
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C.
requirements gaps
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D.
transition problems
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E.
employee resistance
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Â
13. An _________ is the condition that exists when data are isolated in separated information systems.
Â
A.
information moat
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B.
information island
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C.
information bridge
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D.
information barn
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E.
information silo
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Â
14. A(n) _________ is a network of activities that generate value by transforming inputs into outputs.
Â
A.
function
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B.
capability
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C.
network
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D.
business process
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E.
activity
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Â
15. Information systems that support processes spanning two or more independent organizations are termed ____________ information systems.
Â
A.
functional
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B.
personal
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C.
workgroup
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D.
inter-enterprise
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E.
enterprise
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16. A business process that is flexible, informal, and adaptive is said to be a _________ business process.
Â
A.
uniform
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B.
stable
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C.
dynamic
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D.
predictable
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E.
structured
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Â
17. Enterprise application integration includes all of the following features except ___________.
Â
A.
leverages existing systems
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B.
enables existing systems to communicate and share data
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C.
connects system "islands" with software
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D.
provides integrated information
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E.
use of inherent processes
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18. All of the following are ways that an information system can be used to improve process quality except ________.
Â
A.
assisting the human who is performing an activity in the process
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B.
enabling the process to follow a random process
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C.
ensuring the correct process flow is followed
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D.
ensuring the quality of the data associated with the process
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E.
performing an activity in the process
Â
Â
19. Requirements gap identification is a major task when implementing enterprise systems because of all of the following, except ________.
Â
A.
the organization may need to change the way they do things to close the gaps
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B.
the organization needs to decide what to do with the gaps
Â
C.
the application may be altered to reduce the gaps
Â
D.
features and functions of complex products like ERP are not easy to identify
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E.
consolidating the functional systems will close the gaps
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20. The primary goal of ERP systems is ___________.
Â
A.
prediction
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B.
backups
Â
C.
integration
Â
D.
redundancy
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E.
use of the cloud
Â
Â
21. CRM software products enable organizations to become more _________.
Â
A.
diverse
Â
B.
customer-centric
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C.
systematic
Â
D.
self-organizing
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E.
customized
Â
Â
22. the process of reengineering business processes is made difficult for all of the following reasons except:
Â
A.
it is very easy to find people who can design the new improved processes.
Â
B.
redesigning processes for the entire organization is extremely complex.
Â
C.
it takes highly skilled people to redesign business processes.
Â
D.
it is very difficult to envision the new improved processes.
Â
E.
it takes much time to redesign business processes.
Â
Â
23. While changing a business process by adding a resource, one should add cost to the process if ________.
Â
A.
the resources added are non-human
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B.
the resources added are human
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C.
the resource is a one-time investment
Â
D.
the change generates value greater than its cost
Â
E.
the resource adds a recurring cost
Â
Â
25. Enterprise information systems can solve all the following problems except ________.
Â
A.
disjointed business processes
Â
B.
inefficiencies of isolated systems
Â
C.
extra process costs from repetition of activities
Â
D.
duplicated enterprise information
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E.
data quality problems
Â
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Chapter 8
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A way for SM companies to monetize their application, service, or content is through the ________.
Â
A.
freemium revenue model
Â
B.
Web status model
Â
C.
power user premium model
Â
D.
advanced user fee
Â
E.
focused sponsor model
Â
Â
1.    The recommended steps in the process of developing a plan for effectively using an existing social media platform are ___________.
Â
A.
define your value; make personal connections; define your goals; gather and analyze data; identify success metrics; identify target audience
Â
B.
identify target audience; make personal connections; define your value; define your goals; identify success metrics; gather and analyze data
Â
C.
identify success metrics; gather and analyze data; identify target audience; make personal connections; define your value; define your goals
Â
D.
define your goals; identify success metrics; identify target audience; define your value; make personal connections; gather and analyze data
Â
E.
make personal connections; gather and analyze data; define your value; define your goals; identify success metrics; identify target audience
Â
Â
2.    Which of the following is NOT a business function successfully using SMIS to advance organizational strategy?
Â
A.
Logistics
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B.
Sales and marketing
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C.
Internal accounting
Â
D.
Manufacturing and operations
Â
E.
Customer service
Â
Â
3.    Among the following statements, which is true in regards to differences between social CRM and traditional CRM?
Â
A.
In traditional CRM, customers have more control over the relationship with the company.
Â
B.
Social CRM is centered on lifetime value.
Â
C.
A quiet customer, who spends a lot, is less valuable in social CRM.
Â
D.
Traditional CRM is not centered on lifetime value.
Â
E.
Traditional CRM is more dynamic than social CRM.
Â
Â
4.    A KPI is a(n) ________ used to measure success of social media within an enterprise.
Â
A.
competitive analysis
Â
B.
social media provider
Â
C.
vanity metric
Â
D.
online analytical tool
Â
E.
success metric
Â
5.    Which of the following is NOT a question that is difficult to answer regarding the future of social media?
Â
A.
Is there an Enterprise 3.0 around the corner?
Â
B.
Will social media become more unified on a single platform, or become more fragmented across many different platforms?
Â
C.
Will your refrigerators publish what kids are eating after school on the family's social media site?
Â
D.
Will companies start employing people into new positions that are responsible for developing and managing innovative social media programs?
Â
E.
How will companies promote their products?
Â
Â
6.    Which of the following is an internal risk for organizations who have adopted social media?
Â
A.
mistaken or misleading information
Â
B.
junk postings
Â
C.
information leakage about future products
Â
D.
inappropriate content
Â
E.
unfavorable reviews
Â
Â
Â
7.    The best practices associated with successful ESN implementation include ___________.
Â
A.
promote; support; measure; success
Â
B.
plan; sponsorship; measure; adopt
Â
C.
plan; engage; adopt
Â
D.
sponsor; engage; adopt
Â
E.
strategy; sponsorship; support; success
Â
Â
8.    When Starbucks asks its social media users to suggest new drink varieties and to comment on new drinks that are being market tested, it is employing the ________ process.
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A.
blogging
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B.
user-based
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C.
crowdsourcing
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D.
specialty design
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E.
outsourcing
Â
Â
9.    Which of the following statements is most accurate?
Â
A.
"Few social media companies earn revenue through advertising."
Â
B.
"The freemium revenue model offers users access to all features of its site for free."
Â
C.
"Charging subscription fees has proven to be an effective revenue model for social media."
Â
D.
"The more people who use a site, the less valuable it becomes because of crowding."
Â
E.
"Making the 'users' the product is effective at making money using social media."
Â
Â
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10. A critical measure of the efficacy of the advertising revenue model is the ___________.
Â
A.
interest index
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B.
conversion rate
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C.
mobility measure
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D.
power user metric
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E.
response portfolio
Â
Â
11. Microsoft's use of its MVP (Most Valuable Professional) program is a classic example of social media-based _________.
Â
A.
outbound logistics
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B.
sales and marketing
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C.
human resources
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D.
customer support
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E.
inbound logistics
Â
Â
12. Which of the following examples of user-generated content does NOT need to be deleted from a company's social media site?
Â
A.
Obscene language
Â
B.
Postings regarding conspiracy theories
Â
C.
Outbursts about topics not related to the site
Â
D.
Graphic photographs
Â
E.
Negative comments about an experience with the company
Â
Â
13. Which of the following is NOT a way organizations develop an effective SMIS?
Â
A.
Define goals.
Â
B.
Identify target audience.
Â
C.
Define value.
Â
D.
Identify success metrics.
Â
E.
Use what other companies are using.
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14. Some measures used by organizations to track the success of their use of social media are useless in terms of meaningful measurement. These measures are known as _________.
Â
A.
target metrics
Â
B.
vanity metrics
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C.
bounce metrics
Â
D.
key performance metrics
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E.
user response metrics
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15. A(n) ________ is used to identify the strengths and weaknesses in your competitor's use of social media.
Â
A.
vanity metric
Â
B.
online analytical tool
Â
C.
social media provider
Â
D.
success metric
Â
E.
competitive analysis
Â
Â
16. When an organization utilizes a social media platform to enable its employees to work cooperatively, it is said to use a(n) ____________.
Â
A.
personal social network
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B.
employee social network
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C.
internal social network
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D.
enterprise social network
Â
E.
collaborative social network
Â
Â
Â
17. Which statement among the following is NOT one of the SLATES characteristics of Enterprise 2.0?
Â
A.
Applications enable users to rate tagged content.
Â
B.
Tagged content cannot be pushed to users.
Â
C.
Flexible tagging results in folksonomies of enterprise content.
Â
D.
Enterprise content is pushed to users based on subscriptions.
Â
E.
People have more success searching than they do finding from structured content.
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18. The use of information technology to support the sharing of content among users related by common interests is termed ________.
Â
A.
social media
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B.
common media
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C.
networks
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D.
social networks
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E.
online communities
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19. Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter are examples of ___________.
Â
A.
social media users
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B.
social media providers
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C.
social media sponsors
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D.
information systems
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E.
communities of practice
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20. The nature of social capital means that, figuratively, social capital equals ________.
Â
A.
Number of Relationships + Relationship Strength + Entity Resources
Â
B.
Number of Relationships / Relationship Strength / Entity Resources
Â
C.
Number of Relationships < Relationship Strength < Entity Resources
Â
D.
Number of Relationships
dash-
Relationship Strength
dash-
Entity Resources
Â
E.
Number of Relationships x Relationship Strength x Entity Resources
Â
Â
21. A social media site chooses to relate to communities of users based on its goals. If the site is interested in pure publicity, it ________.
Â
A.
competes with other sites for the attention of SM sponsors
Â
B.
creates a viral hook to induce users to share communications
Â
C.
endeavors to constrain the communications across tiers
Â
D.
works with social media application providers to update the site features
Â
E.
competes with other sites for the attention of user communities
Â
Â
22. A unique aspect of social media data is the presence of content data (user contributions) and _________ data (relationship data).
Â
A.
partner
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B.
connection
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C.
relational
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D.
network
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E.
friend
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23. Organizations have learned that they can strengthen their relationships with customers by:
Â
A.
paying them a fee.
Â
B.
providing a "frequent buyer" benefit.
Â
C.
giving away coupons.
Â
D.
tweeting about the customer.
Â
E.
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