Dr Nick

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Category > Numerical analysis Posted 30 May 2017 My Price 12.00

The textbook discusses the intermediate value

The textbook discusses the intermediate value theorem. For the intermediate value theorem why do you think it is necessary for the signs of f(a) and f(b) to be different in order to guarantee there is a zero between a and b.

If it is the case that the signs of f(a) and f(b) are the same, does that mean the function f(x) cannot have a zero between a and b? Explain.

 

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Dr Nick
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Status NEW Posted 30 May 2017 05:05 PM My Price 12.00

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