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Elementary,Middle School,High School,College,University,PHD
| Teaching Since: | Jul 2017 |
| Last Sign in: | 313 Weeks Ago, 5 Days Ago |
| Questions Answered: | 15833 |
| Tutorials Posted: | 15827 |
MBA,PHD, Juris Doctor
Strayer,Devery,Harvard University
Mar-1995 - Mar-2002
Manager Planning
WalMart
Mar-2001 - Feb-2009
Q1. To achieve an effective ____ focus, the governance process should document the requisite day-to-day actions of the everyday information security function down to whatever level of detail is necessary to ensure consistent performance.
    a. tactical
    b. strategic
    c. operational
    d. practical
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Q2. The role of ____ is to establish and maintain coordination and coherence in the overall information security scheme.
    a. enterprise management
    b. tactical management
    c. strategic management
    d. risk management
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Q3. ____ must be standard, because they are used for causal analysis and comparative purposes across the organization.
    a. Security metrics
    b. Security controls
    c. Security objectives
    d. Security records
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Q4. The ____ are an explicit statement of the expected outcome of each information security activity.
    a. controls
    b. control objectives
    c. control structures
    d. control blocks
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Q5. In order to ensure that the strategic management plan is composed of tangible activities, it is documented using a ____ process.
    a. bottom-up
    b. top-down
    c. middle-out
    d. sides-in
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Q6. ____ is the principle that without continuous upkeep, a well-organized process will tend to fall apart over time.
    a. Process entropy
    b. System entropy
    c. Collective entropy
    d. Practical entropy
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Q7. ____ is created when the satisfaction of one constraint causes problems with another.
    a. Negative problem space
    b. Negative utility space
    c. Positive problem space
    d. Positive utility space
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Q8. Much of modern technical work is done through a ____.
    a. chain of suppliers
    b. chain of trust
    c. chain of consumption
    d. chain of value
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Q9. A ____ lets the customer determine whether an individual supplier is carrying out the practices that the customer considers necessary to ensure security.
    a. baseline profile
    b. custom profile
    c. standard profile
    d. reference profile
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Q10. In order for the procurement process to be secure, the activities of both sides of that transaction have to be properly coordinated.
    a. True
    b. False
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Q11. The primary purpose of ____ is to help the developing organization build a product that reflects the security aims of the business.
    a. individual review
    b. hybrid review
    c. directed review
    d. joint review
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Q12. Because of its purpose, the ____ stage of the lifecycle is the appropriate place for cybersecurity professionals to be involved in software assurance.
    a. review
    b. specification
    c. design
    d. testing
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Q13. ____ are defects in application and system software that can be exploited by a threat.
    a. Threats
    b. Vulnerabilities
    c. Risks
    d. Patches
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Q14. In conventional practice, applications and systems pass through five general stages of development that constitute a ______.
    a. tide
    b. framework
    c. specification
    d. lifecycle
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Q15. From an application and system security standpoint, it is vitally important to ensure that every activity and task within the assurance process can be related to an ____.
    a. established policy
    b. expected result
    c. indirect result
    d. observed result
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Q16. Compliance is a minor consideration in the information security universe.
    a. True
    b. False
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Q17. ____ simply designates a condition or state in which the organization can be assured to satisfy relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
    a. Certification
    b. Confirmation
    c. Compliance
    d. Completion
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Q18. Critical ____ factors are the basis for determining whether the compliance process has achieved its goals.
    a. success
    b. work
    c. control
    d. design
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Q19. Formal ____ are the most effective means to ensure general assurance of the compliance process.
    a. management of controls
    b. infrastructures of controls
    c. certification of controls
    d. compliance of controls
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Q20. In the case of ____, the response requires an outside party to assume the consequences of the risk.
    a. risk mitigation
    b. risk transference
    c. risk acceptance
    d. risk avoidance
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Q21. A(n) ____ is one that occurs at regular intervals, ranging typically from one to three years between reviews.
    a. risk-based review
    b. cost-based review
    c. asset-based review
    d. time-based review
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Q22. The ____ process gathers and uses information from all available sources in order to decrease the possibility of overall risks to information assets.
    a. risk mitigation
    b. risk management
    c. risk evaluation
    d. risk improvement
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Q23. ____ would be those risks that might not compromise critical information but where the losses would still have business impacts.
    a. Critical risks
    b. Minor risks
    c. Avoidable risks
    d. Moderate risks
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Q24. Risk response is organized and managed by a(n) ____.
    a. all-hazards plan
    b. all-risk plan
    c. risk management plan
    d. risk mitigation plan
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Q25. Operational risk assessment typically entails the sort of strategic focus that was involved in the formulation of the security strategy.
    a. True
    b. False
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