Maurice Tutor

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    Argosy University/ Phoniex University/
    Nov-2005 - Oct-2011

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    Phoniex University
    Oct-2001 - Nov-2016

Category > Accounting Posted 29 May 2018 My Price 2.00

present value model

Please explain why at time zero in the "present value model under certainty, the present value of the firm's future cash flow is calculated as follow

PA0= ($150/1.10)+($150/(1.10)2)

Also if firm generates end of year cash flow of $150 for two years, what is the cash flow @ year 2

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Maurice Tutor
(5)
Status NEW Posted 29 May 2018 06:05 PM My Price 2.00

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